Consider the right-making feature on
the Catholic view. Arguably, I misstated it in the column. Here is a statement of the
Catholic view from a site on catechisms.
http://www.catechism.cc/articles/QA.htm#05.
In order to be moral, each and every sexual act must be
marital and unitive and procreative. This is the threefold object of every
moral sexual act. This natural sexual act is procreative precisely because it
is inherently directed toward procreation. In other words, it is the type of
act that is intrinsically ordered toward the good end of creating new life. But
even when this act does not or cannot achieve this good end (its moral object),
the act remains inherently ordered toward that same end, and so it retains that
good, the procreative meaning, in its moral object. An act does not
have to achieve its moral object to be inherently ordered toward its moral
object.
There are, as far as I can tell,
three possible explanations of what makes a sex act between infertile or no
longer fertile couples inherently ordered toward procreation.
1. Attitude. The sex act is inherently ordered toward procreation
because couple has some attitude toward conception.
2. Possibility. The sex act is inherently ordered toward procreation
because it is possible that the sex act cause conception. Perhaps this
should be interpreted as metaphysical possibility given the couple's
physiological makeup.
3. Act-Type. The sex act is inherently ordered toward procreation
because the act-type is such that it can, in others, cause conception.
I should have mentioned option (3). This is likely closest to what the doctrine is,
although other parts of the Catholic doctrine suggest that it is (1). This can
be seen in the overlap with the doctrine of double effect and its relation to
sex.
Is the missionary position the only moral sexual position?
No. Any sexual position of natural genital-to-genital intercourse between a husband and wife thereby retains the marital, unitive, and procreative meanings, and so would have a good moral object. But to be moral, each and every knowingly chosen act, in addition to having a good moral object, must also have good intention, and the good consequences must outweigh any bad consequences.
(3) is
implausible because the inherent rightness of one act should not depend on the
features of other acts.
The smaller problem I have with (3)
is that it begs the question. There has to be some feature of it that makes
non-marital-and-vaginal sex wrong in the standard cases. Here I suspect it has
to be either the attitude (1) or the possibility of conception (2) and so (3)
would have to be filled out via (1) and (2).
In any case, I should have mentioned
(3).
The principle that best fits and justifies these
rules is something like a positive attitude toward new life, metaphysical openness to
reproduction, or, perhaps, a view of organs as having a natural function. I
think this because the difference between man-made and natural ways of
preventing pregnancy would not explain why bestiality and masturbation are
grave sins. My guess is that there is a unified explanation as to why they and
using contraception are sinful.
Perhaps the natural function view of
organs does the justificatory work, but it is mysterious how an organ can have
a function other than God's design and evolution.
Note this is written in response to some extremely helpful comments by Ray Belliotti.